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What do you mean that it "sounds" like it's inverting the phase? A phase inversion should not produce any audible difference.
petur: that's fair. But this should be easy to check. Set the output in Rockbox to a mono setting. Then put two speakers facing each other and if cancel each other out
Have you carried out this experiment?
For two speakers that are close to each other the superposed waves will exhibit constructive interference almost everywhere for in-phase waves. If you switch the polarity on one speaker then the situation changes and you will get destructive interference almost everywhere. This works well enough that everyone in an auditorium will hear the expected change in volume when you switch the polarity of one speaker.
Just record the same tone in both channels and look at it in an audio editor. Should be pretty obvious if the phase is inverted in only one channel.
Quote from: saratoga on July 20, 2008, 12:01:12 AMJust record the same tone in both channels and look at it in an audio editor. Should be pretty obvious if the phase is inverted in only one channel. Did it. _BOTH_ channels appear to be inverted.
And you're certain they're not both non-inverted? I guess you checked a less symmetric signal then a sin wave.
And please: Normally, I would be able to identify my wife not just because she has something that I don't have. Thus, looking at the signal with audacity and enough spreading enabled doesn't need a sin wave to tell whether it is inverted or not.
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